WE KNOW FROM MATTHEW 28:18 THAT JESUS HAS ALL AUTHORITY AFTER THE CROSS.
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
JESUS GAVE LAWS THAT ARE OPPOSITE TO THE OLD TESTAMENT LAWS. (Matt. 5:31-39). HE SEEMED TO BE CONTRADICTING THE MOSAIC LAW.
31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
33 Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:
34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God’s throne:
35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.
36 Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black.
37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.
38 Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:
39 But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.
Matt. 5:17-18
17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
QUESTIONS:
- Why were the Jews astonished when Jesus finished the Sermon on the Mount (Matt. 7:28-29)?
- Did Jesus teach the Law of Moses like the scribes and Pharisees taught it (Matt. 7:29)?
- With what authority did Jesus teach (Matt. 28:18)?
- Did the Law of Moses allow a man to put away his wife for any cause (Matt. 5:31; Matt. 19:3-8)?
- Under the Old Testament Law, what did God think of a man who put his wife away (Mal. 2:14-16)?
- Did Jesus allow a man to put away his wife for any cause (Matt. 19:9)?
- To whom did God command the apostles to listen (Matt. 17:1-8)?
- Did Jesus add anything to the Law of Moses regarding not committing adultery (Matt. 5:27-28)?
- Did Jesus allow men to swear as Moses did in the Old Testament (Matt. 5:33-37)?
- Did Jesus command His disciples to obey the Law of Moses which allowed them to demand an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth (Matt. 5:38-39)?
- Did Jesus allow His disciples to hate their enemies (Matt. 5:43-44)?
- Were the commands of the New Testament generally like the commands in the Old Testament (Heb. 8:9-10)?
- What sign did God give concerning His presence in the Old Testament temple (Matt. 27:50-51)?
- Who had been in the Old Testament temple before the cross (Matt. 23:20-21)?
- *Did Jesus come to destroy the Law of Moses (Matt. 5:17)?
- Did Jesus fulfill the Law of Moses (Matt. 5:18)?
- What happened to the Law of Moses after it was fulfilled (Matt. 5:18; Heb. 9:15-18; Heb. 8:10-13)?
- What happened to the Law of Moses when Jesus died (Col. 2:14)?
PLEASE NOTICE:
*The NIV, NAS, NLT, RSV, NAS—UPDATED, erroneously use the word “abolish” in Mt. 5:17 instead of destroy which makes it contradict Eph. 2:15. This is a very important heads-up concerning the versions you may be using. If any students are following these spurious versions they will not understand the question. Remember also that I made a notation regarding which version to use in all my courses.
Thanks,
Beth
“Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil” (Mat 5:17).
Destroy: Strong’s NT:2647 kataluo (kat-al-oo’-o); from NT:2596 and NT:3089; to loosen down (disintegrate), i.e. (by implication) to demolish (literally or figuratively); specially [compare NT:2646] to halt for the night:
“Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;” (Eph. 2:15).
–Beth Johnson